Obama and Romney had almost equal voter support on the eve of the vote. How likely is such a situation in a country with fairly heterogeneous states and quite different applicants? I, like the famous movie character Ivan Vasilyevich Bunsh, am tormented by vague doubts that this is possible without someone’s single regulatory influence through some subtle mechanisms. After all, when the difference is within the margin of error, it is not difficult to “fool” the desired candidate.